I determined a couple of months ago that I do not like fermented beets. So I am pickling some beets in spiced vinegar today. Not too many; DH doesn't particularly like them. So, my question: I've done this before, and just blindly followed the instuctions in the recipe. But this time I actually read what I was doing . So can anybody tell me the logic behind using a certain amount of vinegar, and then half as much water, and boiling it all for 10 minutes (I assume to concentrate the flavors, and maybe the acidity). Why not just leave out some or all of the water, and not boil it as long? Which is, by the way, what I am doing. I'm using my own homemade apple cider vinegar (I know - a big no-no - but I am not driving 20 minutes into town just for a bottle of inferior vinegar!), and don't think I should dilute it at all - though it is probably stronger than the store stuff anyway, as I have never processed it in any way, and the vinegar beasties have been happily having their way with it for the last 5 months .
By the time anyone finds time to answer I will probably be done with the project, or at least have the jars in the canner, so this is more of an academic question. Thanks for any insight!
By the time anyone finds time to answer I will probably be done with the project, or at least have the jars in the canner, so this is more of an academic question. Thanks for any insight!